The Flight Computer
(Updated on 27th January 2021)
Flight Computer
The flight computer is available in many formats and helps pilots complete navigation calculations. They come in both mechanical and electronic forms and are available as apps for most smartphones today. We are going to concentrate on the mechanical version today because most examiners will not permit you to use electronic versions. Mechanical versions are more reliable in that they do not require batteries. The common one used in the USA is the E6-B and in the UK and Ireland it is normally the CRP-1 (up to CRP-5).
The basic flight computer is an amazing tool for any pilot to have. With a little practice, it is extremely easy to use. It is essentially a circular slide rule. One important thing to remember about the Flight Computer is that, it does not know decimals. It is up to the user to determine where to place the decimal point after a calculation. There are a few little tricks and secrets that are often forgot about.
The Flight Computer can:
- Calculate Wind Correction Angle
- Calculate Ground Speed
- Calculate True Airspeed
- Calculate Density Altitude
- Calculate Time Enroute
- Calculate Fuel Consumption
- Do basic division
- Do basic multiplication
- Do unit conversions
- Much More!
Flight Computer History
The flight computer was originally called the E-6B and it was made by Lt. Philip Dalton (US Navy) in the 1930s. He had a patent on the device and it became very popular with pilots all over the world (especially during World War II). More than 400,000 E-6Bs were made from plastic during WWII. It is sometimes called the E6-B and the CRP-1 (and other CRP models) are based on this.
The E-6B has two sides:
- The calculator side
- The wind side
The Calculator Side of The Flight Computer
The calculator side is basically a slide rule that consists of two circles.
- A stationary circle
- A movable, rotating circle
Refer to Figure 1 for location of important parts of the E6-B flight computer.
The numbers printed on the outside of the stationary circle are referred to as the “Outer” scale. The outer scale is used to represent distance, fuel, ground-speed, true airspeed, or corrected (true) altitude, depending on the calculation being performed.
The numbers printed on the inside of the rotating circle are referred to as the “Inner” scale. The inner scale is used to represent time, calibrated or indicated airspeed, and calibrated or indicated altitude, depending on the calculation being performed.
You will notice that the number “60” on the inner scale is associated with a large triangle. The “60” normally refers to one minute (60 seconds) and it is used frequently when performing calculations involving time such as:
- Speed (knots) (nautical miles per hour)
- Fuel consumption (gallons/liters per hour)
In the center of the rotating portion are three windows and these are used to compute corrected (true) altitude, density altitude, and true airspeed.
Remember the following:
- Time is ALWAYS on the INNER scale
- Since Time is ALWAYS on the INNER scale, Volume or distance must ALWAYS be on the OUTER scale for Speed/Distance problems or for Fuel Consumption/Volume problems.
- When doing Speed or Fuel Consumption calculations ALWAYS put “60” (INNER scale) under the Speed or Fuel Consumption. I.e. Nautical miles per HOUR (60min) or Gallons per HOUR (60min).
- When asked to solve a problem, write down the relevant data. Write down the fuel consumption, time, distance etc. and make sure you know what the question is asking you for. If you do not write the data down, you are more likely to make an error.
Scale Values
The numbers marked on the scales can represent different values.
For example, the number 10 can also represent the following numbers:
- 0.1
- 1.0
- 10
- 100
- 1000 etc
You should also be aware that the number of marks between the numbers on the scales can vary. Sometimes there are nine and sometimes there are four. Therefore it is very important that you take note of this.
Each mark may be valued differently. On the outer circle, each mark between 12 and 13 may be valued as 0.1 but when read between the numbers 17 and 18, each mark has a value of 0.2. Not reading the value of the marks correctly will have a serious effect on the answer you calculate.
The inner scale can be used to represent time. You will notice that the number 90 on the inner scale has the number 1:30 printed below it i.e. 90 minutes = 1 hour and 30 minutes. This makes it easier to convert minutes to hours and minutes. Notice that on the hour scale, each tick can represent either 5 minutes or 10 minutes.
Temperature Conversion
Below the number 30 on the outer scale, you will find a temperature conversion scale. This is very handy for converting degrees Celsius to degrees Fahrenheit or vice versa.
Time – Speed – Distance
The inner and outer scales on the flight computer are like the scales of a slide rule. It can be seen that if you put 20 (outer scale) over 30 (inner scale), the following ratios hold good throughout the rest of the scale:
20 40 60
— = — = —
30 60 90
Problems are solved by using these ratios for distance, time and speed, or for gallons, time and fuel consumption rate.
The outer scale is used for distance and the inner scale represents time.
Because of the relationship of the scales of the flight computer; time, speed and distance problems are very easily calculated using the following equation.
. DISTANCE
SPEED = ———————
. TIME
EXAMPLE 1. Assume the speed to be 150 mph and time travelled is 36 minutes. What is the distance?
Solution: Place 150 mph over the one hour index (triangle). Find 36 minutes on the inner scale and read off a distance of 90 miles on the outer scale (distance scale for this type of question).
ANSWER: = 90 miles
EXAMPLE 2. Speed = 120 mph and distance = 200 miles. What is the time?
Solution: Set the index (60 on inner scale) under 120 (12 on outer scale). Opposite 200 (outer scale) read 100 minutes.
ANSWER: = 1 hour 40 minutes (100 minutes)
EXAMPLE 3. Time = 2 hours (120 minutes). Distance = 200 miles. What is the speed?
Solution: Set 200 (outer scale) over 120 minutes (inner scale). Locate the index (60 on inner scale) and read 100 mph (outer scale).
ANSWER: = 100 mph
EXAMPLE 4. Speed = 130 mph and time = 1 hour and 10 minutes (70 minutes). Find the distance.
Solution: Set index (inner scale) under 130 (13 on outer scale). Locate 70 minutes (inner scale) and read 152 on outer scale.
ANSWER: = 152 miles
EXAMPLE 5. Speed = 180 mph and distance = 330 miles. Find the time.
Solution: Set the index under 180. Opposite 330 (33 on outer scale) and read 110 minutes (inner scale).
ANSWER: = 110 minutes
Fuel Consumption Problems
Fuel consumption problems are solved similarly to time, speed and distance problems except that volume is substituted for distance.
. Total Gallons
Gallons per Hour = ————————
. Total Time
EXAMPLE 6. Fuel consumption rate = 13 gallons/hour and time = 90 min. Find total fuel.
Solution: Place number 13 (outer scale) over the index (60 on the inner scale). Opposite 90 minutes on the inner scale, read 19.5 gallons.
ANSWER: 19.5 gallons
EXAMPLE 7. Fuel consumption rate = 9 gallons/hour. Total fuel = 22 gallons. Find flight time.
Solution: Place the index under 9. Opposite 22 (outer scale) read time of 147 minutes.
ANSWER: 2 hours 27 minutes (147 minutes)
EXAMPLE 8. Total fuel = 35 gallons. Time = 3 hours 10 minutes. Find fuel rate.
Solution: Place time of 3:10 under 35 (gallons). Read fuel rate of 11 gallons/hour opposite the index.
ANSWER: 11 gallons/hour
Conversions
Indicated (or Calibrated) Airspeed and True Airspeed are equal at sea level under ISA conditions. As a helicopter climbs to a higher altitude, pressure and temperature will normally decrease. This change requires a correction to IAS to obtain TAS because TAS increases with altitude.
Pressure Altitude will be indicated on the altimeter when the sub-scale is set to 1013hPa.
Conversion to TAS
EXAMPLE 9: Pressure altitude = 10,000 feet. Temperature = 0ºC. Calibrated Airspeed = 150 mph. Find True Airspeed and Density Altitude.
Solution: Using the Airspeed Correction Window, move the inner scale until the 10,000 feet pressure altitude is under 0ºC. Find 150 (inner scale) and read 176 (outer scale). In the Airspeed Correction Window, find the Density Altitude index arrow. Read a Density Altitude of 10,500.
ANSWER: TAS = 176 mph. Density Altitude = 10,500
Now use your flight computer to try and answer the following problems – Answers are listed below.
EXAMPLE 10: Pressure Altitude = 8000 ft. Temperature = -10ºC. IAS = 120 kt. Find TAS and Density Altitude.
EXAMPLE 11: Pressure Altitude = 9000 ft. Temperature = +10ºC. IAS = 140mph. Find TAS and Density Altitude.
EXAMPLE 12: Pressure Altitude = 5000ft. Temperature = +30ºC. IAS = 120mph. Find TAS and Density Altitude.
EXAMPLE 13: Pressure Altitude = 7000 ft. Temperature = -20ºC. IAS = 150 kt. Find TAS and Density Altitude.
EXAMPLE 14: Pressure Altitude = 12000ft. Temperature = -10ºC. IAS = 180mph. Find TAS and Density Altitude.
ANSWER 10: TAS = 133 kt. Density Altitude = 6900 ft
ANSWER 11: TAS = 164 mph. Density Altitude = 10500 ft
ANSWER 12: TAS = 135 mph. Density Altitude = 8000 ft
ANSWER 13: TAS = 160 kt. Density Altitude = 4500 ft
ANSWER 14: TAS = 216 mph. Density Altitude = 12000 ft
Converting Miles to Kilometers
When any value of statute or nautical miles is set opposite the “stat” or “naut” index marks, the distance in kilometers may be read opposite the “Km” index mark (located on the outer scale).
Converting US Gallons to Imperial Gallons
On the outer scale, locate the “U.S. gal.” and “imp. gal.” index marks.
When converting from US Gallons to Imperial Gallons, align the appropriate US Gallon number under the “U.S. gal.” index. The corresponding volume in Imperial Gallons can be read under the “imp. gal.” index.
When converting from Imperial Gallons to US Gallons, align the appropriate Imperial Gallon number under the “imp. gal.” index. The corresponding volume in US Gallons can be read under the “U.S. gal.” index.
Converting Gallons to Liters
On the outer scale, locate the “U.S. gal.”, “imp. gal.” and “liters” index marks.
When converting from US Gallons or Imperial Gallons to Liters, align the appropriate US Gallon number under the “U.S. gal.” index or Imperial Gallon number under the “imp. gal.” index. The corresponding volume in Liters can be read under the “liters” index.
Converting Nautical Miles to Statute Miles
On the outer scale, locate the “Naut” and “Stat” index marks.
When converting from Nautical miles to Statute miles, align the appropriate nautical mile number under the “Naut” index. The corresponding distance in Statute miles can be read under the “Stat” index.
When converting from Statute miles to Nautical miles, align the appropriate Statute mile number under the “Stat” index. The corresponding distance in Nautical miles can be read under the “Naut” index.
Converting Pounds to Kilograms
On the outer scale, locate the “lb” and “kg” index marks.
When converting from Pounds to Kilograms, align the appropriate Pounds (weight) number under the “lb” index. The corresponding weight in Kilograms can be read under the “kg” index.
When converting from Kilograms to Pounds, align the appropriate Kilogram number under the “kg” index. The corresponding weight in Pounds can be read under the “lb” index.
Converting Feet to Meters
When any value of feet is set under the “feet” or “ft” index mark on the outer scale, the distance in meters may be read opposite the “m” index mark (located on the outer scale).
Multiplication
For multiplication use the number “10” on the inner scale as the index (not 60 [triangle]).
Use the following proportions:
. Multiplier Product
—————— = ———————
. 10 Other Factor
A sample problem would be:
2 x 4 = 8
On the flight computer, this problem would appear as:
2 x
— = — Therefore x = 8 (remember that the number 10 here represents 1 in the calculation)
10 4
Division
Use the following proportions:
. Dividend Quotient
—————— = ——————
. Divisor 10
A sample problem would be:
8 ÷ 4 = 2
On the flight computer, this problem would appear as:
8 2
— = — (remember that the number 10 here represents 1 in the calculation)
4 10
Now use your flight computer to see if you can answer the following problems – Answers are listed below.
EXAMPLE 15: 13 x 7 =
EXAMPLE 16: 300 ÷ 15 =
EXAMPLE 17: 19 x 5 =
EXAMPLE 18: 345 ÷ 15 =
EXAMPLE 19: 137 x 7 =
ANSWER 15: 91
ANSWER 16: 20
ANSWER 17: 95
ANSWER 18: 23
ANSWER 19: 959
The Wind Side of The Flight Computer
The wind side of the flight computer is used mainly to calculate how much your aircraft is going to be blown of course by the wind and to help you calculate what course correction to make to compensate for this. It is possible to perform other calculation also and these will be covered below.
The three vectors in the triangle of velocities (see below) can be marked on the disc so that they appear in the same relationship to one another (as in flight) making it easier to visualise the situation and check that the vectors have been applied correctly.
The wind side of the flight computer is made up of the following components:
- A circular (rotatable) compass rose (or azimuth) that has an index marked on it.
- A transparent, plastic plotting disc with a centre dot (grommet).
- A sliding panel printed with concentric speed arcs and radial drift lines.
The Triangle of Velocities
The Wind Triangle
In dead-reckoning navigation many problems involving speed and direction have to be solved. Primarily, you are concerned with Ground Speed, True Heading, True Air Speed, Wind Direction, Wind Speed and True Course (or Track). Often you will know four of these six quantities and will need to determine the other two. For example, you may know True Heading, True Air Speed, Wind Direction and Wind Speed and need to know Track and Ground Speed. In order to solve such problems it is necessary to understand the relationship of these six quantities.
These quantities are represented by vectors. A vector is a quantity having both magnitude and direction. The vector quantity of most importance in navigation is velocity.
Velocity is speed in a specific direction. Wind velocity includes both Wind Speed and Wind Direction, not merely Wind Speed (WS) alone. Likewise, the velocity of an aircraft with relation to the earth’s surface includes both Track and Ground Speed. And the velocity of an aircraft with relation to the air in which it is flying includes both True Heading and True Air Speed.
The velocity of an aircraft over the earth’s surface depends on two quantities:
- The velocity of the aircraft through the air (True Heading and True Air Speed) and
- The velocity of the air over the earth (Wind Direction and Wind Speed)
A vector which thus results directly and entirely from two or more other vectors is said to be the resultant or vector sum of these other vectors. And two or more vectors whose sum or resultant is another vector are called components of this other vector. A change in any component will cause a change in the resultant.
Vector Diagrams
A vector quantity, such as velocity, may be represented on paper by a straight line. The direction of the vector is shown by the line with reference to north. The vector usually is drawn like an arrow, with a head and a tail so that there can be no doubt as to its direction. The magnitude of the vector is shown by the length of the line in comparison with some arbitrary scale. For example, you may let 2.5 cm equal 20 nm. The a velocity of 50 kt in a certain direction is shown by a line 6.25 cm long [(50/20)x2.5] in that direction, Figure 2.
When two or more vectors are components of a third vector, this relationship may be shown by means of a vector diagram. If the components are drawn tail to head in any order, a line from the tail of the first component to the head of the last component represents the resultant. Consequently, if you know the components, you can find the resultant. And if you know the resultant, and all but one of the components, you can find the missing component, Figure 3.
A vector diagram showing the effects of the wind on the flight of an aircraft is called a wind triangle. One line is drawn to show the velocity of the aircraft through the air (True Heading and True Air Speed). This velocity is called the true heading-true air speed vector or air vector. Another line is drawn to the same scale and connected tail to head to show the velocity of the wind. This is the wind vector. A line connecting the tail of the first vector to the head of the second vector shows the resultant of these two velocities to the same scale; it shows the velocity of the aircraft over the earth (Track and Ground Speed). It is called the track-ground speed vector or ground vector. It does not matter which of the two components is drawn first; the resultant is the same, Figure 4.
Take care to remember that True Air Speed is always in the direction of True Heading and that Ground Speed is always in the direction of Track. Also remember that the track-ground speed vector is the resultant of the other two; hence the true heading-true air speed vector and the wind vector are always drawn head to tail.
An easy way to remember this is to recall that the wind always blows the aircraft from the True Heading to the Track (TR).
Consider just what the wind triangle in Figure 5 above shows. An aircraft departs from point A on a True Heading of 360º at a True Air Speed of 150 kt. In one hour, if there were no wind, the aircraft would reach point B at a distance of 150 nm. The line AB shows the direction and distance the aircraft would have flown under no wind conditions. Therefore, the length of AB shows the True Air Speed of the aircraft. Thus, AB represents the velocity of the aircraft through the air and is the air vector.
Imagine that at the end of the first hour the aircraft stops flying forward and remains suspended in mid-air at point B. Suppose then that the wind starts blowing from 270º at 30 kt. At the end of the second hour the aircraft is at point C, 30 miles downwind from B. The line BC shows the direction and distance the aircraft has moved with the wind, or the direction and distance the air has moved in an hour. Therefore the length of BC represents the speed of the wind in the same scale as the True Air Speed. Thus, BC represents the wind velocity and is the wind vector.
As a result of the aircrafts forward motion and the effect of the wind during the same hour, the aircraft reaches C at the end of the first hour. It does not go to B and then to C. Instead, it goes directly by the line AC, since the wind carries it east at 30 kt at the same time that the engine forces it north at 150 kt. Therefore, the line AC shows the distance and direction the aircraft travels over the ground in one hour and the length of AC represents the Ground Speed in the same scale as the True Air Speed and Wind Speed. Thus AC, which is the resultant of AB and BC, represents the velocity of the aircraft over the ground and is the ground vector.
Measuring the length of AC, you find that the Ground Speed is about 153 kt. Measuring the drift angle BAC and applying it to the True Heading of 360º, you find that the track is 011, or 11º to the right.
Work Only in Degrees True (or Totally in Degrees M)
It is most important that when working out the vector triangle, the directions are all related to the same datum. In Ireland it is common practice for PPL pilots to use degrees true. You can use degrees magnetic throughout and the result will be the same but it is vital to use the same units throughout your calculations.
Choice of Method
The flight computer is such that each problem can be solved in a number of ways. Each method produces the same results. You must find a method that suits you. Initially, use the method recommended by your instructor. Once you have mastered this method, then feel free to try other methods.
Your flight computer will be mostly used during flight planning prior to flight. You will already know the following;
- Track (measured from the chart)
- Wind Velocity (obtained from weather forecasts and weather charts)
- True Air Speed (planned cruising speed)
You will then use the wind side of the flight computer to calculate the following:
- Heading
- Ground Speed
There are two commonly used methods for solving this type of calculation and I will refer to them as:
- Method A – Wind dot up method
- Method B – Wind dot down method
Either method will obtain the same results.
Method A – Wind Dot Up
For this method I will use an E6-B flight computer. The process is the same for the CRP flight computers.
The graphical solution of a wind triangle is shown in Figure 6 below. In the diagram, the centre line represents the true course of 30º. The wind is blowing from 100º at 30 kt. The ground speed (at the grommet) is at 150 kt and the True Air Speed at the wind dot is 163 kt. The heading is 10º right of centre, or 40º. The wind correction Angle is thus also 10º to the right.
All wind solutions can be graphically shown by a wind triangle similar to the one depicted in Figure 6 above.
Find Heading and Ground Speed Knowing TR, TAS and W/V
EXAMPLE 20
The planned Track (TR) = 340º
Reported wind = 035º at 30 kt
Planned True Air Speed = 140 kt
FIND:
- Ground Speed
- Wind Correction Angle
- True Heading
Solution
- As shown in Figure 7 above, set the wind direction of 35º at the True Index
- Mark a wind speed dot at a value of 30 kt above the grommet.
- Rotate the centre disc to set 340º True Course at the True Index, Figure 8.
- Set the wind dot on the 140 kt air speed arc by adjusting the slide.
- The Ground Speed (120 kt) can be read under the grommet
- The Wind Correction Angle is 10º right or 350º
EXAMPLE 21: True Course = 360º. Wind Velocity = 040º@25 kt. TAS = 160. Find WCA, True Heading and Ground Speed.
EXAMPLE 22: True Course = 290º. Wind Velocity = 240º@30 kt. TAS = 130. Find WCA, True Heading and Ground Speed.
EXAMPLE 23: True Course = 050º. Wind Velocity = 190º@20 kt. TAS = 150. Find WCA, True Heading and Ground Speed.
EXAMPLE 24: True Course = 090º. Wind Velocity = 320º@30 kt. TAS = 145. Find WCA, True Heading and Ground Speed.
EXAMPLE 25: True Course = 120º. Wind Velocity = 120º@25 kt. TAS = 170. Find WCA, True Heading and Ground Speed.
ANSWER 21: WCA = 6ºR True Heading = 006º Ground Speed = 140 kt
ANSWER 22: WCA = 10ºL True Heading = 280º Ground Speed = 109 kt
ANSWER 23: WCA = 5ºR True Heading = 055º Ground Speed = 165 kt
ANSWER 24: WCA = 9ºL True Heading = 081º Ground Speed = 163 kt
ANSWER 25: WCA = 0º True Heading = 120º Ground Speed = 145 kt
Method B – Wind Dot Down
This is called the “Wind Dot Down” method for the following reasons:
- The centre dot is used as the starting point of the Wind Velocity vector
- The Wind Dot is marked beneath the centre dot (down from the centre dot)
Since the Wind Velocity blows the aircraft from its heading to its track and the heading vector ends where the Wind Velocity vector starts, the heading/TAS vector should be placed up the centre of the slide so that it ends at the centre dot.
Find Heading and Ground Speed Knowing TR, TAS and W/V
This is the typical situation before flight.
Track is measured from the chart and wind velocity is obtained from meteorological information.
EXAMPLE 26
The planned Track = 295º
Reported wind = 320º at 25 kt
Planned True Air Speed = 97 kt
Solution
- Rotate the compass rose until the direction from which the wind is blowing is under the index, i.e. 320º.
- Mark the wind dot 25 kt down from the grommet, Figure 9.
- Move the slide until the True Air Speed (97 kt) is directly underneath the grommet, Figure 10.
- Turn the compass rose until the planned Track (295º) is aligned with the index.
- The Wind Dot will have moved over the 8º left drift line therefore the compass rose must be adjusted by rotating 8º anti-clockwise. 303º is now aligned under the index.
- The Wind Dot has moved again to the 6º drift line (not the original 8º). This means you must turn the compass rose 2º back (clockwise) to allow for this. 301º is now aligned with the index, Figure 11.
- Check the Wind Dot again and notice that there has been no further change in the drift angle.
- Read the Heading from the index (301º).
- The Ground Speed is read from under the Wind Dot (73 kt), Figure 12.
The European Aviation Medical – Class 1 and Class 2
(Reviewed on 21st January 2021)
All pilots have to undergo a medical examination at regular intervals. Even student pilots will be required to have a medical certificate before they go solo. Commercial pilots (CPL) are required to pass a Class 1 medical examination. Private pilots (PPL) are required to pass a Class 2 examination.
A pilot’s licence or a student pilot’s licence is not valid if the medical certificate is not current. Student pilots must decide if they are going to require a Class 1 or a Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Part-FCL and they should consult with their instructor for advice. A list of Authorised Medical Examiners (AMEs) may be found at the IAA website.
All Class 1 medical examinations can only be carried out at the Aeromedical facility at the Mater Private Hospital in Dublin.
Class 2 medicals may be carried out be any AME located throughout the country.
How long does a medical certificate last?
This depends on the class of medical and your age. Refer to the following table:
Decrease in Medical Fitness
If you are aware of any decrease in your medical fitness that may affect the safety of the flight, you are not permitted to fly as Pilot in Command or as co-pilot in an aircraft. If you are required to take any prescribed or non-prescribed medication, it is up to you to ensure that the medication will not adversely affect your flying ability.
Holders of medical certificates shall, without undue delay, seek the advice of an Aeromedical Centre (AMC) or an AME when becoming aware of:
- hospital or clinic admission for more than 12 hours
- surgical operation or invasive procedure
- the regular use of medication
- the need for regular use of correcting lenses
Holders of medical certificates who are
aware of:
- any significant personal injury involving incapacity to function as a member of a flight crew; or
- any illness involving incapacity to function as a member of a flight crew throughout a period of 21 days or more; or
- being pregnant
must inform the Authority in writing of the injury or pregnancy, and as soon as the period of 21 days has elapsed in the case of illness. The medical certificate will be deemed to be suspended upon the occurrence of any such injury or the elapse of such period of illness or the confirmation of the pregnancy, and:
- in the case of injury or illness, the suspension will be lifted once you have been medically examined under arrangements made by the Authority and being pronounced fit to function as a member of the flight crew, or upon the Authority exempting, subject to such conditions as it thinks fit, the holder from the requirement of a medical examination; and
- in the case of pregnancy, the suspension may be lifted by the Authority for such period and subject to such conditions as it thinks fit and will cease once you have been medically examined under arrangements made by the Authority after the pregnancy has ended and being pronounced fit to resume your functions as a member of the flight crew.
Revalidation of Medical Certificate
The medical certificate may be revalidated up to 45 days before the expiry date.
Use of Medical Treatments
Any procedure requiring the use of a general or spinal anesthetic will render the medical certificate void for a period of at least 48 hours and shall inform the AME or AMC.
Any procedure requiring the use of a local or regional anesthetic will render the medical certificate void for a period of at least 12 hours and shall inform the AME or AMC.
Validity of medical certificates
Class 1
- If a licence holder allows his Medical Certificate to expire by more than five years, renewal shall require an initial or extended, at AMS discretion, aeromedical examination, performed at an AMC which has obtained his medical records. (EEG may be omitted unless clinically indicated.)
- If a licence holder allows his Medical Certificate to expire by more than two years but less than five years, renewal shall require the prescribed standard or extended examination to be performed at an AMC which has obtained his medical file, or by an AME at the discretion of the AMS, subject to the records of medical examinations for flight crew licences being made available to the medical examiners.
- If a licence holder allows his certificate to expire by more than 90 days but less than two years, renewal shall require the prescribed standard or extended examination to be performed at an AMC, or by an AME at the discretion of the AMS.
- If a licence holder allows his certificate to expire by less than 90 days, renewal shall be possible by standard or extended examination as prescribed.
Class 2
- If an Instrument Rating is added to the licence, pure tone audiometry must have been performed within the last 60 months if the licence holder is 39 years of age or younger, and within the last 24 months if the licence holder is 40 years of age or older.
- If a licence holder allows his Medical Certificate to expire by more than five years, renewal shall require an initial aeromedical examination. Prior to the examination the medical file shall be obtained by the AME.
- If a licence holder allows his Medical Certificate to expire by more than one year but less than five years, renewal shall require the prescribed examination to be performed. Prior to the examination the medical file shall be obtained by the AME.
- If a licence holder allows his certificate to expire by less than one year, renewal shall require the prescribed examination to be performed.
An extended aeromedical examination shall always be considered to contain a standard aeromedical examination and thus count both as a standard and an extended examination.
The following paragraphs are taken from PART FCL and provide more detail in what is involved in the medical examination.
The CLASS 1 Medical Examination
The Class 1 medical is the most stringent of the medical examinations you will have to take. In Ireland, this must be done in the Mater Private Hospital in Dublin. If you are getting your first (initial) Class 1, make sure that you tell the secretary that this is going to be an initial when you are booking it. Allow at least 1 month to ensure a reservation as they are very busy. Also, book a day of work as this is going to take a long time.
Some of the tests you will undergo for the initial medical are:
- Chest X-Ray
- Hearing tests
- Urine
- Blood Sample
- Eye tests (including colour blindness test)
- Full body examination
- EEG
- ECG
Bring some form of photo ID and be prepared to answer some pretty personal questions about your medical history.
Cardiovascular system – Examination
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the cardiovascular system, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- A standard 12-lead resting electrocardiogram (ECG) and report are required at the examination for first issue of a medical certificate, then every 5 years until age 30, every 2 years until age 40, annually until age 50, and every 6 months thereafter and on clinical indication.
- Estimation of serum/plasma lipids, including cholesterol, is required to facilitate risk assessment at the examination for first issue of a medical certificate, and at the first examination after age 40.
Cardiovascular system – Blood pressure
- When the blood pressure at examination consistently exceeds 160 mmHg systolic and/or 95 mmHg diastolic, with or without treatment, the applicant shall be assessed as unfit.
- Treatment for the control of blood pressure shall be compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s) The initiation of drug therapy shall require a period of temporary suspension of the medical certificate to establish the absence of significant side effects.
- Applicants with symptomatic hypotension shall be assessed as unfit.
Cardiovascular system – Coronary artery disease
- Applicants with suspected coronary artery disease shall be investigated. Applicants with asymptomatic minor coronary artery disease, requiring no treatment may only be considered fit by the AMS subject to certain conditions.
- Applicants with symptomatic coronary artery disease shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants following myocardial infarction shall be assessed as unfit at the initial examination. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS at renewal and revalidation examinations subject to certain conditions.
- Applicants following coronary by-pass surgery or coronary angioplasty/stenting shall be assessed as unfit at the initial examination. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS at renewal and revalidation examinations subject to certain conditions.
Cardiovascular system – Rhythm/conduction disturbances
- Applicants with significant disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including sinoatrial dysfunction, whether intermittent or established, shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS under specific circumstances
- Applicants with asymptomatic sinus bradycardia or sinus tachycardia may be assessed as fit in the absence of underlying abnormality.
- Applicants with asymptomatic isolated uniform atrial or ventricular ectopic complexes need not be assessed as unfit. Frequent or complex forms require full cardiological evaluation in compliance
- In the absence of any other abnormality, applicants with incomplete bundle branch block or stable left axis deviation may be assessed as fit.
- Applicants with complete right or left bundle branch block require cardiological evaluation on first presentation.
- Applicants with broad and/or narrow complex tachycardias shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to certain conditions.
- Applicants with an endocardial pacemaker shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to specific conditions.
Cardiovascular system – General
- Applicants with peripheral arterial disease before or after surgery shall be assessed as unfit. Provided there is no significant functional impairment, a fit assessment may be considered by the AMS under specific circumstances
- Applicants with aneurysm of the thoracic or abdominal aorta, before or after surgery, shall be assessed as unfit. Applicants with aneurysm of the infra-renal abdominal aorta may be considered by the AMS at renewal or revalidation examinations.
- Applicants with significant abnormality of any of the heart valves shall be assessed as unfit.
- Systemic anticoagulant therapy is disqualifying. Applicants who have received treatment of limited duration may be considered for a fit assessment by the AMS subject to specific conditions.
- Applicants with any abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or endocardium not covered above shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS following complete resolution and satisfactory cardiological evaluation.
- Applicants with congenital abnormality of the heart, before or after corrective surgery, shall be assessed as unfit. Applicants with minor abnormalities may be assessed as fit by the AMS following cardiological investigation.
- Heart or heart/lung transplantation is disqualifying.
- Applicants with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS in applicants with a suggestive history.
Respiratory system – General
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the respiratory system, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Posterior/anterior chest radiography is required at the initial examination. It may be required at revalidation/renewal examinations when indicated on clinical or epidemiological grounds.
- Pulmonary function tests are required at the initial examination. A peak flow test shall be performed at first revalidation or renewal examination after age 30, every 5 years until age 40, and every 4 years thereafter and on clinical indication. Applicants with significant impairment of pulmonary function shall be assessed as unfit.
Respiratory system – Disorders
- Applicants with chronic obstructive airway disease shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with reactive airway disease (bronchial asthma) requiring medication shall be assessed case by case.
- Applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system shall be assessed as temporarily unfit.
- Applicants with active sarcoidosis shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with spontaneous pneumothorax shall be assessed as unfit pending full evaluation.
- Applicants requiring major chest surgery shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum of three months following operation and until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome shall be assessed as unfit.
Digestive system – General
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the gastro intestinal tract or its adnexa which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
Digestive system – Disorders
- Applicants with recurrent dyspeptic disorders requiring medication or with pancreatitis shall be assessed as unfit pending assessment.
- Applicants with asymptomatic gallstones discovered incidentally shall be assessed case by case.
- Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease shall normally be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants shall be required to be completely free from those herniae that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms.
- Applicants with any sequela of disease or surgical intervention in any part of the digestive tract or its adnexa likely to cause incapacitation in flight, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression, shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs, shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum period of three months or until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s)
Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine diseases
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorder which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunctions may be assessed as fit.
- Applicants with diabetes mellitus may be assessed as fit under specific circumstances.
- Applicants with diabetes requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with a Body Mass Index > 35 may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and a satisfactory cardiovascular risk review has been undertaken.
Haematology
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any haematological disease which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Haemoglobin shall be tested at every medical examination and cases of significant anaemia with a haematocrit below 32% shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with sickle cell disease shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with significant localised and generalised enlargement of the lymphatic glands and diseases of the blood shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with acute leukaemia shall be assessed as unfit. After established remission, certification may be considered by the AMS. Initial applicants with chronic leukaemias shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with significant enlargement of infections of the spleen shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with significant polycythaemia shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with a coagulation defect shall be assessed as unfit.
Urinary system
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the urinary system or its adnexa which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Applicants presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as unfit. Urinalysis shall form part of every medical examination. The urine shall contain no abnormal element considered to be of pathological significance. Particular attention shall be paid to disease affecting the urinary passages and the genital organs.
- Applicants presenting with urinary calculi shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with any sequela of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract likely to cause incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression, shall be assessed as unfit. An applicant with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be considered fit.
- Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation in the urinary tract or the urinary apparatus involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum period of three months and until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to cause incapacity in flight.
Sexually transmitted diseases and other infections
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any sexually transmitted disease or other infection which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention shall be paid to a history of or clinical signs indicating:
- HIV positivity,
- immune system impairment,
- infectious hepatitis,
- syphilis.
Gynaecology and obstetrics
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural obstetric or gynaecological condition which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- An applicant with a history of severe menstrual disturbances unamenable to treatment shall be assessed as unfit.
- Pregnancy entails unfitness. If obstetric evaluation indicates a completely normal pregnancy, the applicant may be assessed as fit until the end of the 26th week of gestation. Licence privileges may be resumed upon satisfactory confirmation of full recovery following confinement or termination of pregnancy.
- An applicant who has undergone a major gynaecological operation shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum period of three months and until such time as the effects of the operation are not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence(s).
Musculoskeletal requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles and tendons, congenital or acquired which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- An applicant shall have sufficient sitting height, arm and leg length and muscular strength for the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence.
- An applicant shall have satisfactory functional use of the musculoskeletal system. An applicant with any significant sequela from disease, injury or congenital abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery shall be assessed case by case.
Psychiatric requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any psychiatric disease or disability, condition or disorder, acute or chronic, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s),
- Particular attention shall be paid to the following:
- Schizophrenia, schizotypal and delusional disorders;
- mood disorders;
- neurotic, stress-related and somatoform disorders;
- personality disorders;
- organic mental disorders;
- mental and behavioural disorders due to alcohol;
- use or abuse of psychotropic substances.
Neurological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any neurological condition which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention shall be paid to the following:
- progressive disease of the nervous system,
- epilepsy and other causes of disturbance of consciousness,
- conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction,
- head injury,
- spinal or peripheral nerve injury.
- Electroencephalography is required at the initial examination and when indicated by the applicant’s history or on clinical grounds.
Ophthalmological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the eyes or their adnexa or any active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequela of eye surgery or trauma, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- An ophthalmological examination is required at the initial examination and shall include:
- History;
- Visual acuity, near, intermediate and distant vision: uncorrected; with best optical correction if needed;
- Objective refraction. Hyperopic applicants under age 25 in cycloplegia;
- Ocular motility and binocular vision;
- Colour vision;
- Visual fields;
- Tonometry on clinical indication and over age 40;
- Examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy. Slit lamp examination.
- A routine eye examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal examinations and shall include:
- History;
- Visual acuity, near, intermediate and distant vision: uncorrected and with best optical correction if needed;
- Morphology by ophthalmoscopy;
- Further examination on clinical indication.
- Where, in certificate holders the functional performance standards (6/9, 6/9, 6/6, N14, N5) can only be reached with corrective lenses, the applicant shall supply to the AME an examination report from an ophthalmologist or vision care specialist acceptable to the AMS. The report must refer to an examination which was carried out at the time of the general medical examination and in any case not more than 24 months before the general medical examination. The examination shall include:
- History;
- Visual acuity, near, intermediate and distant vision: uncorrected; with best optical correction if needed;
- Refraction;
- Ocular motility and binocular vision;
- Colour vision;
- Visual fields;
- Tonometry over age 40;
- Examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy. Slit lamp examination.
The report shall be forwarded to the AMS. If any abnormality is detected, such that the applicant’s ocular health is in doubt, further ophthalmological examination will be required.
Visual requirements
- Distant visual acuity. Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, shall be 6/9 (0,7) or better in each eye separately and visual acuity with both eyes shall be 6/6 (1,0) or better. No limits apply to uncorrected visual acuity.
- Refractive errors. Refractive error is defined as the deviation from emmetropia measured in dioptres in the most ametropic meridian. Refraction shall be measured by standard methods. Applicants shall be considered fit with respect to refractive errors if they meet the following requirements:
- Refractive error (i) At the initial examination the refractive error shall not exceed ±3 dioptres. (ii) At revalidation or renewal examinations, an applicant experienced to the satisfaction of the Authority with refractive errors up to +5/-8 dioptres may be considered fit by the AMS.
- Astigmatism (i) In an initial applicant with a refractive error with an astigmatic component, the astigmatism shall not exceed 2·0 dioptres. (ii) At recertification or renewal examinations, an applicant experienced to the satisfaction of the Authority with a refractive error with an astigmatic component not exceeding 3·0 dioptres may be considered fit by the AMS.
- Keratoconus is disqualifying. The AMS may consider re-certification if the applicant meets the visual requirements.
- Anisometropia (i) In initial applicants the difference in refractive error between the two eyes (anisometropia) shall not exceed 2·0 dioptres. (ii) At recertification or renewal examinations, an applicant experienced to the satisfaction of the Authority with a difference in refractive error between the two eyes of up to 3·0 dioptres may be considered fit by the AMS.
- The development of presbyopia shall be followed at all aeromedical renewal examinations.
- An applicant shall be able to read N5 chart (or equivalent) at 30–50 cms and N14 chart (or equivalent) at 100 cms, with correction if prescribed.
- An applicant with significant defects of binocular vision shall be assessed as unfit. There is no stereoscopic test requirement.
- An applicant with diplopia shall be assessed as unfit.
- An applicant with imbalance of the ocular muscles (heterophorias) exceeding (when measured with usual correction, if prescribed):
[2·0] prism dioptres in hyperphoria at 6 metres,
[10·0] prism dioptres in esophoria at 6 metres,
8·0 prism dioptres in exophoria at 6 metres;
and
1·0 prism dioptre in hyperphoria at 33 cms,
6·0 prism dioptres in esophoria at 33 cms,
12·0 prism dioptres in exophoria at 33 cms
shall be assessed as unfit. If the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and diplopia the AMS may consider a fit assessment.
- An applicant with visual fields which are not normal shall be assessed as unfit.
- If a visual requirement is met only with the use of correction, the spectacles or contact lenses must provide optimal visual function and be suitable for aviation purposes.
- Correcting lenses, when worn for aviation purposes, shall permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all distances. No more than one pair of spectacles shall be used to meet the requirement.
- A spare set of similarly correcting spectacles shall be readily available when exercising the privileges of the licence.
- Eye Surgery.
- Refractive surgery entails unfitness. Certification may be considered by the AMS.
- Cataract surgery, retinal surgery and glaucoma surgery entail unfitness. Recertification may be considered by the AMS.
Colour perception
- Normal colour perception is defined as the ability to pass the Ishihara test or to pass Nagel’s anomaloscope as a normal trichromate.
- An applicant shall have normal perception of colours or be colour safe. Applicants who fail Ishihara’s test shall be assessed as colour safe if they pass extensive testing with methods acceptable to the AMS (anomaloscopy or colour lanterns.
- An applicant who fails the acceptable colour perception tests is to be considered colour unsafe and shall be assessed as unfit.
Otorhinolaryngological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the ears, nose, sinuses or throat (including oral cavity, teeth and larynx), or any active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequela of surgery and trauma which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- A comprehensive otorhinolaryngological examination is required at the initial examination and subsequently once every five years up to the 40th birthday and every two years thereafter.
- A routine Ear-Nose-Throat examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal examinations.
- Presence of any of the following disorders in an applicant shall result in an unfit assessment.
- Active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal or middle ear.
- Unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membranes.
- Disturbances of vestibular function.
- Significant restriction of the nasal air passage on either side, or any dysfunction of the sinuses.
- Significant malformation or significant, acute or chronic infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract.
- Significant disorder of speech or voice.
Hearing requirements
- Hearing shall be tested at all examinations. The applicant shall understand correctly conversational speech when tested with each ear at a distance of 2 metres from and with his back turned towards the AME.
- Hearing shall be tested with pure tone audiometry at the initial examination and at subsequent revalidation or renewal examinations every five years up to the 40th birthday and every two years thereafter.
- At the initial examination for a Class 1 medical certificate there shall be no hearing loss in either ear, when tested separately, of more than 20 dB(HL) at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 and 2 000 Hz, or of more than 35 dB(HL) at 3 000 Hz. An applicant whose hearing loss is within 5 dB(HL) of these limits in two or more of the frequencies tested, shall undergo pure tone audiometry at least annually.
- At revalidation or renewal examinations, there shall be no hearing loss in either ear, when tested separately, of more than 35dB(HL) at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000, and 2 000 Hz, or of more than 50 dB(HL) at 3 000 Hz. An applicant whose hearing loss is within 5 dB(HL) of these limits in two or more of the frequencies tested, shall undergo pure tone audiometry at least annually.
- At revalidation or renewal, applicants with hypoacusis may be assessed as fit by the AMS if a speech discrimination test demonstrates a satisfactory hearing ability.
Psychological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall have no established psychological deficiencies which are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s). A psychological evaluation may be required by the AMS where it is indicated as part of, or complementary to, a specialist psychiatric or neurological examination.
- When a psychological evaluation is indicated a psychologist acceptable to the AMS shall be utilised.
- The psychologist shall submit to the AMS a written report detailing his opinion and recommendation.
Dermatological requirements
- An applicant for, or holder of a Class 1 Medical Certificate shall have no established dermatological condition, likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention should be paid to the following disorders:
- Eczema (Exogenous and Endogenous),
- Severe Psoriasis,
- Bacterial Infections,
- Drug Induced Eruptions,
- Bullous Eruptions,
- Malignant Conditions of the skin,
- Urticaria. Referral to the AMS shall be made if doubt exists about any condition.
Oncology
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 1 medical certificate shall have no established primary or secondary malignant disease likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- After treatment for malignant disease applicants may be assessed as fit.
The CLASS 2 Medical Examination
Cardiovascular system – Examination
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the cardiovascular system, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- A standard 12-lead resting electrocardiogram (ECG) and report are required at the examination for first issue of a medical certificate, at the first examination after the 40th birthday and at each aeromedical examination thereafter.
- If two or more major risk factors (smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, obesity, etc) are present in an applicant, estimation of plasma lipids and serum cholesterol is required at the examination for first issue of a medical certificate and at the first examination after age 40.
Cardiovascular system – Blood pressure
- Blood pressure shall be recorded.
- When the blood pressure at examination consistently exceeds 160 mmHg systolic and/or 95 mmHg diastolic with or without treatment the applicant shall be assessed as unfit.
- Treatment for the control of blood pressure shall be compatible with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s). The initiation of drug therapy shall require a period of temporary suspension of the medical certificate to establish the absence of significant side effects.
- Applicants with symptomatic hypotension shall be assessed as unfit.
Cardiovascular system – Coronary artery disease
- Applicants with asymptomatic, minor, coronary artery disease may be considered fit by the AMS subject to specific conditions.
- Applicants with symptomatic coronary artery disease shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants following myocardial infarction shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to specific conditions.
- Applicants following coronary bypass surgery or coronary angioplasty/stenting shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to specific conditions.
Cardiovascular system – Rhythm/conduction disturbances
- Applicants with disturbance of supraventricular rhythm, including sinoatrial dysfunction, whether intermittent or established shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to specific conditions.
- Applicants with asymptomatic sinus bradycardia or sinus tachycardia may be assessed as fit in the absence of underlying abnormality.
- Applicants with asymptomatic isolated uniform atrial or ventricular ectopic complexes need not be assessed as unfit. Frequent or complex forms require full cardiological evaluation in compliance with certain conditions.
- In the absence of any other abnormality, applicants with incomplete bundle branch block or stable left axis deviation may be assessed as fit.
- Applicants with complete right or left bundle branch block require cardiological evaluation on first presentation and subsequently in compliance with certain conditions.
- Applicants with broad and/or narrow complex tachycardias shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to compliance with certain conditions.
- Applicants with an endocardial pacemaker shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to compliance with certain conditions.
Cardiovascular system – General
- Applicants with peripheral arterial disease before or after surgery shall be assessed as unfit. Provided there is no significant functional impairment a fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to certain conditions.
- Applicants with aneurysm of the thoracic or abdominal aorta, before or after surgery, shall be assessed as unfit. Applicants with infra-renal abdominal aortic aneurysm may be considered fit by the AMS subject to compliance with certain conditions.
- Applicants with significant abnormality of any of the heart valves shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with minor cardiac valvular abnormalities may be assessed as fit by the AMS subject to compliance with certain conditions.
- Applicants with cardiac valve replacement/repair shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS subject to compliance with certain conditions.
- Systemic anticoagulant therapy is disqualifying. Applicants who have received treatment of limited duration, may be considered for a fit assessment by the AMS subject to compliance with certain conditions.
- Applicants with any abnormality of the pericardium, myocardium or endocardium not covered above shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS following complete resolution and satisfactory cardiological evaluation in compliance with certain conditions.
- Applicants with congenital abnormality of the heart, before or after corrective surgery, shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS in compliance with certain conditions.
- Heart or heart/lung transplantation is disqualifying.
- Applicants with a history of recurrent vasovagal syncope shall be assessed as unfit. A fit assessment may be considered by the AMS in an applicant with a suggestive history subject to compliance with certain conditions.
Respiratory system – General
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the respiratory system, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Posterior/anterior chest radiography is required only when indicated on clinical or epidemiological grounds.
- A pulmonary peak flow test is required at the initial examination, at the first examination after the 40th birthday, every four years thereafter and when clinically indicated. Applicants with significant impairment of pulmonary function shall be assessed as unfit.
Respiratory system – Disorders
- Applicants with chronic obstructive airway disease shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with reactive airway disease (bronchial asthma) requiring medication shall be assessed.
- Applicants with active inflammatory disease of the respiratory system shall be assessed as temporarily unfit.
- Applicants with active sarcoidosis shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with spontaneous pneumothorax shall be assessed as unfit pending full evaluation.
- Applicants requiring major chest surgery shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum of three months following operation and until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Applicants with unsatisfactorily treated sleep apnoea syndrome shall be assessed as unfit.
Digestive system – General
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the gastro-intestinal tract or its adnexa which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
Digestive system – Disorders
- Applicants with dyspeptic disorders requiring medication or with pancreatitis shall be assessed as unfit pending examination.
- Applicants with asymptomatic gallstones discovered incidentally shall be assessed.
- Applicants with an established diagnosis or history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease shall normally be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might give rise to incapacitating symptoms.
- Applicants with any sequela of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its adnexae likely to cause incapacitation in flight, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression, shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants who have undergone a surgical operation on the digestive tract or its adnexa, involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs, shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum period of three months or until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
Metabolic, nutritional and endocrine diseases
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorder which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Applicants with metabolic, nutritional or endocrine dysfunctions may be assessed as fit.
- Applicants with diabetes mellitus may be assessed as fit only in accordance specific conditions.
- Applicants with diabetes requiring insulin shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with a Body Mass Index > 35 may be assessed as fit only if the excess weight is not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicable licence(s) and a satisfactory cardiovascular risk review has been undertaken.
Haematology
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any haematologic disease which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Haemoglobin shall be tested at the initial examination for a medical certificate and when indicated on clinical grounds. Cases of significant anaemia with a haematocrit below 32% shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with sickle cell disease shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with significant localised and generalised enlargement of the lymphatic glands and diseases of the blood shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with acute leukaemia shall be assessed as unfit. After established remission certification may be considered by the AMS. Initial applicants with chronic leukaemia shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with significant enlargement of the spleen shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with significant polycythaemia shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with a coagulation defect shall be assessed as unfit.
Urinary system
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural disease of the urinary system or its adnexa which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Applicants presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as unfit. Urinalysis shall form part of every medical examination. The urine shall contain no abnormal element considered to be of pathological significance. Particular attention shall be paid to disease affecting the urinary passages and the genital organs.
- Applicants presenting with urinary calculi shall be assessed as unfit.
- Applicants with any sequela of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract likely to cause incapacitation, in particular any obstruction due to stricture or compression, shall be assessed as unfit. Applicants with compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uraemia may be considered fit by the AMS.
- Applicants who have undergone a major surgical operation in the urinary tract or the urinary apparatus involving a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum period of three months and until such time as the effects of the operation are no longer likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
Sexually transmitted diseases and other infections
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any sexually transmitted disease or other infection which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention shall be paid to a history of or clinical signs indicating :
- HIV positivity,
- immune system impairment,
- infectious hepatitis,
- syphilis.
Gynaecology and obstetrics
- An applicant for or the holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any functional or structural obstetric or gynaecological condition which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- An applicant with a history of severe menstrual disturbances unamenable to treatment shall be assessed as unfit.
- Pregnancy entails unfitness. If obstetric evaluation indicates a completely normal pregnancy, the applicant may be assessed as fit until the end of the 26th week of gestation. Licence privileges may be resumed upon satisfactory confirmation of full recovery following confinement or termination of pregnancy.
- An applicant who has undergone a major gynaecological operation shall be assessed as unfit for a minimum period of three months and until such time as the effects of the operation are not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence(s).
Musculoskeletal requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles and tendons, congenital or acquired which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- An applicant shall have sufficient sitting height, arm and leg length and muscular strength for the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence.
- An applicant shall have satisfactory functional use of the musculo-skeletal system. An applicant with any significant sequela from disease, injury or congenital abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons with or without surgery shall be assessed case by case.
Psychiatric requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any psychiatric disease or disability, condition or disorder, acute or chronic, congenital or acquired, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention shall be paid to the following:
- schizophrenia, schizotypal and delusional disorders;
- mood disorders;
- neurotic, stress-related and somatoform disorders;
- personality disorders;
- organic mental disorders;
- mental and behavioural disorders due to alcohol;
- use or abuse of psychotropic substances.
Neurological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any neurological condition which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention shall be paid to the following:
- progressive disease of the nervous system,
- epilepsy and other causes of disturbance of consciousness,
- conditions with a high propensity for cerebral dysfunction,
- head injury,
- spinal or peripheral nerve injury.
Ophthalmological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the eyes or their adnexa or any active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequela of eye surgery or trauma, which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- An ophthalmological examination is required at the initial examination and shall include:
- History;
- Visual acuity, near and distant vision; uncorrected; with best optical correction if needed;
- Ocular motility and binocular vision;
- Colour vision;
- Visual fields;
- Examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy.
- A routine eye examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal examinations and shall include:
- History;
- Visual acuity, near and distant vision: uncorrected; with best optical correction if needed;
- Examination of the external eye, anatomy, media and fundoscopy
- Further examination on clinical indication
Visual requirements
- Distant visual acuity. Distant visual acuity, with or without correction, shall be 6/12 (0,5) or better in each eye separately and visual acuity with both eyes shall be 6/6 (1,0) or better. No limits apply to uncorrected visual acuity.
- Refractive errors. Refractive error is defined as the deviation from emmetropia measured in dioptres in the most ametropic meridian. Refraction shall be measured by standard methods. Applicants shall be considered fit with respect to refractive errors if they meet the following requirements.
- Refractive error. (i) At the initial examination the refractive error shall not exceed ±5 dioptres. (ii) At recertification or renewal examinations, an applicant experienced to the satisfaction of the Authority with refractive errors up to + 5/-8 dioptres may be considered fit by the AMS.
- Astigmatism. (i) In an initial applicant with a refractive error with an astigmatic component, the astigmatism shall not exceed 3·0 dioptres. (ii) At recertification or renewal examinations, an applicant experienced to the satisfaction of the Authority with a refractive error with an astigmatic component of more than 3·0 dioptres may be considered fit by the AMS.
- Keratoconus is disqualifying. The AMS may consider re-certification if the applicant meets the visual requirements.
- In an applicant with amblyopia, the visual acuity of the amblyopic eye shall be 6/18 (0/32) or better. The applicant may be accepted as fit provided the visual acuity in the other eye is 6/6 or better and no pathology (including refractive error) can be demonstrated.
- Anisometropia. (i) In an initial applicant the difference in refractive error between thetwo eyes (anisometropia) shall not exceed 3·0 dioptres. (ii) At recertification or renewal examinations, an applicant experienced to the satisfaction of the Authority with a difference in refractive error between the two eyes (anisometropia) of more than 3·0 dioptres may be considered fit by the AMS. Contact lenses shall be worn if the anisometropia exceeds 3·0 dioptres.
- The development of presbyopia shall be followed at all aeromedical renewal examinations.
- An applicant shall be able to read N5 chart (or equivalent) at 30–50 cms and N14 chart (or equivalent) at 100 cms, with correction if prescribed.
- An applicant with significant defects of binocular vision shall be assessed as unfit. There is no stereoscopic test requirement.
- An applicant with diplopia shall be assessed as unfit.
- An applicant with visual fields which are not normal shall be assessed as unfit.
- If a visual requirement is met only with the use of correction, the spectacles or contact lenses must provide optimal visual function and be suitable for aviation purposes.
- Correcting lenses, when worn for aviation purposes, shall permit the licence holder to meet the visual requirements at all distances. No more than one pair of spectacles shall be used to meet the requirements.
- A spare set of similarly correcting spectacles shall be readily available when exercising the privileges of the licence.
- Eye Surgery.
- Refractive surgery entails unfitness. Certification may be considered by the AMS.
- Cataract surgery, retinal surgery and glaucoma surgery entail unfitness. Recertification may be considered by the AMS.
Colour perception
- Normal colour perception is defined as the ability to pass Ishihara’s test or to pass Nagel’s anomaloscope as a normal trichromate.
- An applicant shall have normal perception of colours or be colour safe. Applicants who fail Ishihara’s test may be assessed as colour safe if they pass extensive testing with methods acceptable to the AMS (anomaloscopy or colour lanterns).
- An applicant who fails the acceptable colour perception tests is to be considered colour unsafe and shall be assessed as unfit.
- A colour unsafe applicant may be assessed by the AMS as fit to fly by day only.
Otorhinolaryngological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall not possess any abnormality of the function of the ears, nose, sinuses, or throat (including oral cavity, teeth and larynx), or any active pathological condition, congenital or acquired, acute or chronic, or any sequela of surgery and trauma which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- A comprehensive otorhinolaryngological examination by an AME is required at the initial examination.
- A routine Ear-Nose-Throat examination shall form part of all revalidation and renewal examinations.
- Presence of any of the following disorders in an applicant shall result in an unfit assessment.
- Active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal or middle ear.
- Unhealed perforation or dysfunction of the tympanic membranes.
- Disturbances of vestibular function.
- Significant restriction of the nasal air passage on either side, or any dysfunction of the sinuses.
- Significant malformation or significant, acute or chronic infection of the oral cavity or upper respiratory tract.
- Significant disorder of speech or voice.
Hearing requirements
- Hearing shall be tested at all examinations. The applicant shall be able to understand correctly ordinary conversational speech when at a distance of 2 metres from and with his back turned towards the AME.
- If an instrument rating is to be added to the applicable licence(s), a hearing test with pure tone audiometry is required at the first examination for the rating and shall be repeated every 5 years up to the 40th birthday and every 2 years thereafter.
- At the initial examination for a Class 2 medical certificate with instrument ratings there shall be no hearing loss in either ear, when tested separately, of more than 20 dB(HL) at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 and 2 000 Hz, or of more than 35 dB(HL) at 3 000 Hz. An applicant whose hearing loss is within 5 db (HL) of these limits in two or more of the frequencies tested shall undergo pure tone audiometry at least annually.
- At recertification or renewal examinations there shall be no hearing loss in either ear, when tested separately of more than 35 db (HL) at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000, and 2 000 Hz, or more than 50 db (HL) at 3 000 Hz. An applicant whose hearing loss is within 5 db (HL) of these limits in two or more of the frequencies tested shall undergo pure tone audiometry at least annually.
- At recertification or renewal examinations applicants with hypoacusis may be assessed as fit by the AMS if a speech discrimination test demonstrates a satisfactory hearing ability.
Psychological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall have no established psychological deficiencies, particularly in operational aptitudes or any relevant personality factor, which are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s). A psychological evaluation may be required by the AMS where it is indicated as part of, or complementary to, a specialist psychiatric or neurological examination.
- When a psychological evaluation is indicated a psychologist acceptable to the Authority shall be utilised.
- The psychologist shall submit to the AMS a written report detailing his opinion and recommendation.
Dermatological requirements
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 Medical Certificate shall have no established dermatological condition, likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the applicable licence(s).
- Particular attention should be paid to the following disorders:
- Eczema (Exogenous and Endogenous),
- Severe Psoriasis,
- Bacterial Infections,
- Drug Induced Eruptions,
- Bullous Eruptions,
- Malignant Conditions of the skin,
- Urticaria.
Referral to the AMS shall be made if doubtexists about any condition.
Oncology
- An applicant for or holder of a Class 2 medical certificate shall have no established primary or secondary malignant disease likely to the applicable licence(s).
- After treatment for malignant disease applicants may be assessed as fit.
Dangerous Goods
(Reviewed on 7th January 2021)
Introduction
As pilots we take passengers with us on flights whether for business or for pleasure. But when is the last time you asked them what was in their bags? Do you know what amount of alcohol is permitted on board. Does it have to be kept in the luggage compartment or can it be carried in the cabin? How many hair straighteners can be taken on board? Etc.
These are questions we should be looking at as ultimately, we are the ones responsible for the safety of the flight.
I have compiled a table using information from IATA which may be useful to you as a reference.
Dangerous Goods Definition
According to the International Air Transport Association (IATA), dangerous goods are articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous foods in the regulation or which are classified according to the regulations.
Dangerous Goods General
Some dangerous goods are too dangerous to be carried by aircraft, others may be carried on cargo aircraft only and some are acceptable on both cargo and passenger aircraft. A number of limitations are placed on dangerous foods which are permitted to be transported by air. These limitations are established by the regulations but your country may impose extra regulations.
Dangerous Goods Forbidden In Aircraft Under Any Circumstances
Any article or substance which is liable to explode, dangerously react, produce a flame or dangerous evolution of heat or dangerous emission of toxic, corrosive or flammable gases or vapours under conditions normally encountered in transport must not be carried in aircraft under any circumstances.
Dangerous Goods Forbidden Unless Exempted
The dangerous goods described in paragraphs (1) to (5) must not be carried in aircraft unless exempted by the particular country you are flying in.
- Radioactive material which is:
- In vented type packages
- In packages which require external cooling
- In packages subject to operational controls during transport
- Explosive
- A pyrophoric liquid
- Unless otherwise provided, articles and substances with a UN number which are identified in the “List of Dangerous Goods” as being forbidden
- Infected live animals
- Liquids having a vapour inhalation toxicity which requires special packaging
- Substances that are offered for transport in a liquid state at temperatures equal to or exceeding 100 degrees Celsius or in a solid state in temperatures equal to or exceeding 240 degrees Celsius
- Any other articles or substances as specified by the country you are flying in
Type of dangerous good |
|||||
The pilot-in-command must be informed of the location… |
|||||
The approval of the operator is required… |
|||||
Permitted on ones person… |
|||||
Permitted as checked in baggage… |
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Permitted as carry on baggage… |
|||||
Disabling devices such as mace, pepper spray, etc. containing an irritant or incapacitating substance are prohibited on the person, in checked and carry-on baggage. | X | X | X | – | – |
Electro shock weapons (e.g. Tasers) containing dangerous goods such as explosives, compressed gases, lithium batteries, etc. are forbidden in carry-on baggage or checked baggage or on the person. | X | X | X | – | – |
Security-type attaché cases, cash boxes, cash bags , etc. incorporating dangerous goods, such as lithium batteries and/or pyrotechnic material, are totally forbidden. | X | X | X | – | – |
Ammunition (cartridges for weapons), securely packaged (in Div. 1.4S, UN 0012 or UN 0014 only), in quantities not exceeding 5 kg (11 lb) gross weight per person for that person’s own use, excluding ammunition with explosive or incendiary projectiles. Allowances for more than one passenger must not be combined into one or more packages. | X | √ | X | √ | X |
Camping stoves and fuel containers that have contained a flammable liquid fuel, with empty fuel tank and/or fuel container. | X | √ | X | √ | X |
Battery-powered wheelchairs or other similar mobility devices with non-spillable batteries which comply with Packing Instruction 872 or Special Provision A67, provided the battery terminals are protected from short circuits, e.g. by being enclosed in a battery container, and the battery is securely attached to the wheelchair or mobility aid. | X | √ | X | √ | X |
Battery-powered wheelchairs or other mobility devices with spillable batteries or with lithium batteries. | X | √ | X | √ | √ |
Mercury barometer or thermometer carried by a representative of a government weather bureau or similar official agency. | √ | X | X | √ | √ |
Lithium ion batteries with a Watt-hour rating exceeding 100 Wh but not exceeding 160 Wh for portable electronic devices. No more than two spare batteries may be carried in carry-on baggage only. These batteries must be individually protected to prevent short circuits. Equipment containing such batteries may be in checked or carry-on baggage. | √ | X | √ | √ | X |
Avalanche rescue backpack, one (1) per passenger, equipped with a pyrotechnic trigger mechanism containing less than 200mg net of Division 1.4S and less than 250 mg of compressed gas in Division 2.2. The backpack must be packed in such a manner that it cannot be accidentally activated. The airbags within the backpacks must be fitted with pressure relief valves. | √ | √ | X | √ | X |
Chemical Agent Monitoring Equipment when carried by staff members of the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons on official travel. | √ | √ | X | √ | X |
Heat producing articles such as underwater torches (diving lamps) and soldering irons. | √ | √ | X | √ | X |
Carbon dioxide, solid (dry ice), in quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg (5lb) per passenger when used to pack perishables not subject to these Regulations in checked or carry-on baggage, provided the baggage (package) permits the release of carbon dioxide gas. Each item of checked baggage must be marked “dry ice” or “carbon dioxide, solid” and with the net weight of dry ice or an indication that there is 2.5kg or less dry ice. | √ | √ | X | √ | X |
Insulated packagings containing refrigerated liquid nitrogen (dry shipper), fully absorbed in a porous material and intended for transport, at low temperature, of non-dangerous products are not subject to these Regulations provided the design of the insulated packaging would not allow the build-up of pressure within the container and would not permit the release of any refrigerated liquid nitrogen irrespective of the orientation of the insulated packaging. | √ | √ | X | √ | X |
Non-flammable gas cylinder fitted into a life jacket containing carbon dioxide or other suitable gas in Division 2.2, up to two (2) small cylinders per passenger, and up to two (2) spare cartridges. | √ | √ | √ | √ | X |
Oxygen or air gaseous cylinders required for medical use. The cylinder must not exceed 5 kg gross weight. Note: Liquid oxygen systems are forbidden for transport. |
√ | √ | X | √ | √ |
Portable medical electronic devices (Automated External Defibrillators (AED), Nebulizer, Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP), etc.) containing lithium metal or lithium ion cells or batteries may be carried. | √ | √ | √ | √ | X |
Aerosols in Division, with no subsidiary risk, for sporting or home use. | X | √ | X | X | X |
Non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles (including aerosols) such as hair sprays, perfumes, colognes and medicines containing alcohol. The total net quantity of all above mentioned articles must not exceed 2 kg (4.4 lb) or 2 L (2 qt), and the net quantity of each single article must not exceed 0.5 kg (1 lb) or 0.5 L (1 pt). Release valves on aerosols must be protected by a cap or other suitable means to prevent inadvertent release of the contents. |
√ | √ | √ | X | X |
Alcoholic beverages, when in retail packagings, containing more than 24% but not more than 70% alcohol by volume, in receptacles not exceeding 5L, with a total net quantity per person of 5L. | √ | √ | √ | X | X |
Energy efficient light bulbs when in retail packaging intended for personal or home use. | √ | √ | √ | X | X |
Non-flammable, non-toxic gas cylinders worn for the operation of mechanical limbs. Also, spare cylinders of a similar size if required to ensure an adequate supply for the duration of the journey. | √ | √ | √ | X | X |
Portable electronic devices containing lithium metal or lithium ion cells or batteries, such as watches, calculating machines, cameras, cellular phones, lap-top computers, camcorders, etc., when carried by passengers or crew for personal use. | √ | √ | √ | X | X |
Spare lithium or lithium ion cells or batteries, for such consumer electronic devices may be carried in carry-on baggage only. These batteries must be individually protected to prevent short circuits. | √ | X | √ | X | X |
Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas, up to one (1) per passenger or crew-member, provided that the safety cover is securely fitted over the heating element. These hair curlers must not be used on board the aircraft at any time. Gas refills for such curlers are not permitted in checked or carry-on baggage. | √ | √ | X | X | X |
Medical or clinical thermometer, which contains mercury, one (1) per passenger for personal use, when in its protective case. | √ | √ | √ | X | X |
Fuel cell systems, and spare fuel cartridges powering portable electronic devices (for example cameras, cellular phones, laptop computers, and camcorders). | √ | X | √ | X | X |
Radioisotopic cardiac pacemakers or other devices, including those powered by lithium batteries, implanted into a person, or radiopharmaceuticals contained within the body of a person as the result of medical treatment. | X | X | √ | X | X |
Safety matches (one small packet) or a cigarette lighter that does not contain unabsorbed liquid fuel, other than liquefied gas, intended for use by an individual when carried on the person. Lighter fuel and lighter refills are not permitted on one’s person nor in checked or carry-on baggage. Note: “Strike anywhere” matches, “Blue flame” or “Cigar” lighters are forbidden. |
X | X | √ | X | X |
How Many Helicopters in the World?
(Updated on 14th December 2020)
How Many Aircraft in the World?
I am sure you have all wondered at some time or another how many helicopters are in the world today. Well, I did a little research and this is what I came up with.
Type of Aircraft | Number |
---|---|
Active General Aviation Aircraft | 446,000 |
Passenger (Commercial) Aircraft | 24,330 |
Freight Planes | 1,770 |
Total Commercial Planes | 26,100 |
Total Planes (excluding drones) | 564,589 |
Military Aircraft | 53,953 |
Civil Helicopters | 38,536 |
Military Helicopters | 31,192 |
Total Helicopters | 69,728 |
Information in the table was obtained from Transportation and the Belt and Road Initiative and from the Statistical Databook and Industry Outlook pdf.
General aviation (GA) is defined as all aviation other than scheduled commercial airlines and military aviation.
The 446,000 General Aviation Aircraft includes fixed wing, rotary and private business jets. General Aviation Statistical Databook & Industry Outlook. 211,757 of these aircraft are based in the USA (2017 data).
In 2012 there were 10,055 General Aviation helicopters in the USA and approximately 15,000 rotary pilots.
According to http://www.helis.com/faq/, in 2001; of the 26,500 Civil helicopters, distribution was as follows:
- 46.1% in North America
- 18.2% in Europe
- 12.7% in former Soviet Union
- 12.3% in Asia/Pacific region
- 7.2% in South America
- 3.4% in Middle East
- 0.1% in Africa
Of the 29,700 Military Helicopters in 2001, distribution was as follows:
- 33.5% in North America
- 21.1% in Europe
- 16.6% in former Soviet Union
- 13.6% in Asia/Pacific region
- 6.3% in the Middle East
- 4.5% in Africa
- 4.4% in South America?
Boeing forecasts there will be demand for more than 35,000 new planes worth $4.8tn (£3.1tn) over the next 20 years, with airlines keen to replace fuel-hungry older models to cope with high oil prices. http://www.theguardian.com/business/2013/jun/11/boeing-commercial-planes-double-asia-pacific.
According to Flight International’s 2003 Military Aircraft Census, there were an estimated 89,129 military aircraft worldwide.
These figures were very difficult to find and it must be remembered that the numbers are changing constantly.
For those of us who have the opportunity to fly helicopters, it is obvious that we are the privileged few. There are over 7 billion people on our planet today but there are only 53,953 helicopters.
Please let me know if you have any further information and as usual, feel free to leave any comments – good or bad.